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code equivalence

I have built a code which sent 14 digital values to the DO of my DAQ card. The change of  digital code happened manually by buttons.

Now I wanted to automatise that so I had to change my code accordingly.

 

I attached a VI that shows the old solution on the left and the new one on the right. The first number goes from 0 to 60, the second one from 0 to 4.

 

The question is whether both the solutions deliver identical results. 

 

Thanks,

Krivan

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Message 1 of 3
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Why don't you just make a simulation and try for yourself? 😉

 

In principle it's close, but depending on the desired outcome you might have to reverse the two boolean arrays. I am not sure how the bits are numbered. So remove the "reverse array" if needed. I don't know your specifications.

 

Trimming the arrays is most easily done using reshape array.

Combining the arrays can be done in one step.

 

Here's a quick draft... (LV 2009)

 

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Message 2 of 3
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thanks for the suggestions altenbach! It did help a lot.

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